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ISTQB Foundation Exam Preparation-K Level wise-Q 21 to 30

The following questions prepared according to different K-Levels are of great help in reviewing your skills before appearing in ISTQB Foundation Level exam as per the Latest Syllabus updated in 2010.

Set of 10 Questions (Q. 21 to 30) with Explanation in Favor of the Correct Answer

The Correct Answer has been Hi-lighted in Bold.

K1- Q. 21: Which of the following is a structure-based (white-box) technique?

A. Decision table testing
B. State transition testing
C. Statement testing
D. Boundary value analysis

Explanation in favor of the correct answer

All other options are specification-based (black-box) techniques, and the main distracter is answer (A) because decision table testing could be confused with decision testing.
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K1- Q. 22: What is the main purpose of use case testing?

A. To identify defects in process flows related to typical use of the system.

B. To identify defects in the connections between components.

C. To identify defects in the system related to extreme scenarios.

D. To identify defects in the system related to the use of unapproved programming practices.

Explanation in favor of the correct answer

Answer (B) relates to integration testing; answer (C) could relate to boundary value analysis or performance testing, but use cases exercise typical process flows rather than extreme examples; answer (D) relates to static analysis.

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K1- Q. 23: What is the purpose of exit criteria?

A. To identify how many tests to design.
B. To identify when to start testing.
C. To identify when to stop testing.
D. To identify who will carry out the test execution.

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K1- Q. 24: What can a risk-based approach to testing provide?

A. The types of test techniques to be employed.
B. The total tests needed to provide 100 per cent coverage.
C. An estimation of the total cost of testing.
D. Only that test execution is effective at reducing risk.

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K1- Q. 25: When assembling a test team to work on an enhancement to an existing system, which of the following has the highest level of test independence?

A. A business analyst who wrote the original requirements for the system.

B. A permanent programmer who reviewed some of the new code, but has not written any of it.

C. A permanent tester who found most defects in the original system.

D. A contract tester who has never worked for the organization before.

Explanation in favor of the correct answer

In this scenario, the contract tester who has never worked for the organization before has the highest level of test independence. The three others are less independent as they are likely to make assumptions based on their previous knowledge of the requirements, code and general functionality of the original system.

Note that independence does not necessarily equate to most useful. In practice most test or project managers would recruit a permanent tester who has worked on the original system in preference to a contract tester with no knowledge of the system. However, when assembling a team it would be useful to have staff with varying levels of test independence and system knowledge.

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K1- Q. 26: Which of the following terms is used to describe the management of software components comprising an integrated system?

A. Configuration management
B. Incident management
C. Test monitoring
D. Risk management

Explanation in favor of the correct answer

Incident management is the collection and processing of incidents raised when errors and defects are discovered. Test monitoring identifies the status of the testing activity on a continuous basis. Risk management identifies, analyses and mitigates risks to the project and the product. Configuration management is concerned with the management of changes to software components and their associated documentation and testware.

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K1- Q. 27: A new system is about to be developed. Which of the following functions has the highest level of risk?

A. Likelihood of failure = 20%; impact value = £100,000

B. Likelihood of failure = 10%; impact value = £150,000

C. Likelihood of failure = 1%; impact value = £500,000

D. Likelihood of failure = 2%; impact value = £200,000

Explanation in favor of the correct answer

In (B) the product of probability × impact has the value £15,000; in (C) the value is £5,000 and in (D) it is £4,000. The value of £20,000 in (A) is therefore the highest.

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K1- Q. 28: Which of the following statements about risks is most accurate?

A. Project risks rarely affect product risk.

B. Product risks rarely affect project risk.

C. A risk-based approach is more likely to be used to mitigate product rather than project risks.

D. A risk-based approach is more likely to be used to mitigate project rather than product risks.

Explanation in favor of the correct answer

In general, project risk and product risk can be hard to differentiate. Anything that impacts on the quality of the delivered system is likely to lead to delays or increased costs as the problem is tackled. Anything causing delays to the project is likely to threaten the delivered system’s quality. The risk-based approach is an approach to managing product risk through testing, so it impacts most directly on product risk.

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K1- Q. 29: For which of the following activities in the fundamental test process would an incident management tool be most useful?

A. Test planning and control
B. Test analysis and design
C. Test implementation and execution
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

Explanation in favor of the correct answer

Incident management tools are most useful during test implementation and execution as this is the stage at which the tool is used to raise, manage, retest and close incidents.

The data collected during the defect life cycle can then be manipulated into information that is useful for other activities within the fundamental test process.

Information on numbers of defects outstanding may be useful for evaluating exit criteria (option (D)). This information could also be used for planning future testing and for taking control (option (A)).

Incident management tools can also assist in test analysis and design (option (B)) as information about defects found when testing the previous release of the system could be used when analyzing the type of testing required for the next enhancement.

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K1- Q. 30: Which of the following defects is most likely to be found by a test harness?

A. Variance from programming standards.
B. A defect in middleware.
C. Memory leaks.
D. Regression defects.

Explanation in favor of the correct answer

Variance from programming standards defects (option (A)) are found during the review or static testing process. Therefore a test harness is unlikely to find a defect in programming standards.

Memory leak defects (option (C)) could potentially be found by a test harness designed to run many test cases.

Regression defects (option (D)) could be found using many types of test tool.

Defects in middleware (option (B)) are generally more likely to be found by a test harness or a dynamic analysis tool than by any other type of tool.


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